If #a_k in RR^+# and #s = sum_(k=1)^na_k#. Prove that for any #n > 1# we have #prod_(k=1)^n(1+a_k) < sum_(k=0)^n s^k/(k!)#?

Answer 1
Define #"f"(n) = sum_(k=0)^n s^k/(k!)#.
#"f"'(n)= sum_(k=0)^n ks^(k-1)/(k!)#, #"f"'(n) = sum_(k=0)^(n-1) s^k/(k!)#, #"f"'(n) = "f"(n-1)#.
#"f"(n)# is increasing for #n in ZZ^+# if #"f"'(n)>0#. #"f"'(n)>0# if #"f"(n-1)>0#. #"f"(0)=1#. Inductively, #"f"(n)# is increasing for #n in ZZ^+# and therefore #"f"(n)>0#.

I'm going to prove a useful inequality.

Consider #"g"(x) = x-ln(1+x)#. Then #"g"'(x) = 1 - 1/(1+x)#. Clearly #1/(1+x) < 1# for #x>0#, so we conclude that #"g"(x)# is an increasing function. As #"g"(0) = 0#, #"g"(x)>0# for #x>0#. Then,
#ln(1+x)
As #x>0# and #a_k>0#, let #x=a_k#. We have,
#ln(1+a_k)

Summing each side,

#sum_(k=1)^(n) ln(1+a_k) < sum_(k=1)^n a_k#.
We can substitute our definition of #s#.
#sum_(k=1)^n ln(1+a_k) < s#.
By using #ln(a)+ln(b)=ln(ab)# and writing #s=ln(e^s)# we conclude,
#ln(prod_(k=1)^n (1+a_k)) < ln(e^s)#.

By taking an inverse logarithm,

#prod_(k=1)^n (1+a_k) < e^s#.
Define #"h"(n) = sum_(n+1)^(\infty) s^k/(k!)#.

Then,

#"h"'(n) = sum_(k=n+1)^(\infty) k * s^(k-1)/(k!)#, #"h"'(n) = sum_(k=n)^(\infty) s^k/(k!)#. #"h"'(n) = "h"(n-1)#.
Then #"h"(n)>0# if #"h"(n-1)>0#. Inductively, as #"h"(0)=e^s# and #e^s>0#, #"h"(n)>0#.

So, we have that,

#prod_(k=1)^n (1+a_k) < e^s#, #prod_(k=1)^n (1+a_k) < sum_(k=1)^(n) s^k/(k!) - sum_(k=n+1)^(\infty) s^k/(k!)#, #prod_(k=1)^n (1+a_k) < sum_(k=1)^(n) s^k/(k!)#.
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Answer 2
To prove the inequality \( \prod_{k=1}^{n}(1+a_k) < \sum_{k=0}^{n} \frac{s^k}{k!} \), we can use the inequality \( e^x > 1+x \) for all real \( x \). Let \( x = a_k \) for \( k = 1, 2, ..., n \). Then, we have \( e^{a_k} > 1 + a_k \) for each \( k \). Multiplying these inequalities for \( k = 1, 2, ..., n \), we get: \[ e^{a_1} \cdot e^{a_2} \cdot \ldots \cdot e^{a_n} > (1 + a_1)(1 + a_2) \cdot \ldots \cdot (1 + a_n) \] This simplifies to: \[ e^{a_1 + a_2 + \ldots + a_n} > \prod_{k=1}^{n} (1 + a_k) \] Since \( s = \sum_{k=1}^{n} a_k \), we have \( e^s > \prod_{k=1}^{n} (1 + a_k) \). Now, consider the power series expansion of \( e^s \): \[ e^s = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{s^k}{k!} \] Truncating this series at \( n \), we obtain: \[ \sum_{k=0}^{n} \frac{s^k}{k!} \] Therefore, we have: \[ e^s > \prod_{k=1}^{n} (1 + a_k) \] \[ \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{s^k}{k!} > \prod_{k=1}^{n} (1 + a_k) \] \[ \sum_{k=0}^{n} \frac{s^k}{k!} > \prod_{k=1}^{n} (1 + a_k) \] Hence, we have proven that: \[ \prod_{k=1}^{n}(1+a_k) < \sum_{k=0}^{n} \frac{s^k}{k!} \]
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Answer from HIX Tutor

When evaluating a one-sided limit, you need to be careful when a quantity is approaching zero since its sign is different depending on which way it is approaching zero from. Let us look at some examples.

When evaluating a one-sided limit, you need to be careful when a quantity is approaching zero since its sign is different depending on which way it is approaching zero from. Let us look at some examples.

When evaluating a one-sided limit, you need to be careful when a quantity is approaching zero since its sign is different depending on which way it is approaching zero from. Let us look at some examples.

When evaluating a one-sided limit, you need to be careful when a quantity is approaching zero since its sign is different depending on which way it is approaching zero from. Let us look at some examples.

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