How can I show that #lim_(x->0)(1-cos(x^2))/(xsin(x^3))=1/2# using the Maclaurin series?

Show that #lim_(x->0)(1-cos(x^2))/(xsin(x^3))=1/2# using the Maclaurin series. I know how maclaurin series works but that's ridiculous!

Answer 1

#lim_(x->0) (1-cosx^2)/(xsin^3x) = 1/2#

Consider the MacLaurin series for #sint# and #cost#:
#sint = sum_(n=0)^oo (-1)^n t^(2n+1)/((2n+1)!)#
#cost = sum_(n=0)^oo (-1)^n t^(2n)/((2n)!)#
Substituting #t=x^3# in the first and #t=x^2#in the second, we have:
#sinx^3 = sum_(n=0)^oo (-1)^n x^(6n+3)/((2n+1)!)#
#cosx^2 = sum_(n=0)^oo (-1)^n x^(4n)/((2n)!)#
Stop the expansion of #cosx^2# at the second term to have:
#1-cosx^2 = 1 - (1-x^4/2+o(x^8)) = x^4/2+o(x^8)#

and:

#(1-cosx^2)/x = x^3/2+o(x^7)#
Now use only the first term of the expansion of #sinx^3#:
#sinx^3 = x^3-o(x^9) = x^3(1-o(x^6))#

so that:

#(1)/(sinx^3) = 1/(x^3(1-o(x^6))#

Now consider the geometric series:

#sum_(n=0)^oo x^n =1/(1-x)#

so that:

#1/(1-x) = 1+x+o(x^2)#

and then:

#1/(1-o(x^6)) = 1+o(x^6) +o(o(x^6)^2)= 1+o(x^6)#
#1/(sinx^3) = 1/x^3(1+o(x^6)) = 1/x^3 + o(x^3)#

Finally:

#(1-cosx^2)/(xsin^3x) = ( x^3/2+o(x^7) ) (1/x^3 + o(x^3) )#
#(1-cosx^2)/(xsin^3x) = 1/2 + x^3/2o(x^3)+(o(x^7))/x^3 + o(x^6)o(x^3 )#
Now by definition of #o(x^n)# we have that:
#lim_(x->0) x^3(o(x^3)) = 0#
#lim_(x->0) (o(x^7))/x^3 = 0#
#lim_(x->0) o(x^6)o(x^3)= 0#

and then:

#lim_(x->0) (1-cosx^2)/(xsin^3x) = 1/2#
Sign up to view the whole answer

By signing up, you agree to our Terms of Service and Privacy Policy

Sign up with email
Answer 2
Numerator: First write #cos(x^2)# as a MacLaurin series by doing a substitution with the MacLaurin series representation for #cosu = sum_(n=0)^(oo) frac{(-1)^n u^(2n)}{(2n)!}#
So: #cos(x^2) = sum_(n=0)^(oo) frac{(-1)^n x^(4n)}{(2n)!}#
# = 1 - frac{x^4}{2!} + frac{x^8}{4!} - (x^12)/(6!) + ... + frac{(-1)^nx^(4n)}{(2n)!}#
#1 - cos(x^2) = frac{x^4}{2!} - (x^8)/(4!) + (x^12)/(6!)- ... + frac{(-1)^nx^(4n)}{(2n)!}#
Denominator Also use the MacLaurin series representation for #sin(u)# to substitute: #sin(u) = sum_(n=0)^(oo) frac{(-1)^n u^(2n+1)}{(2n+1)!}#
#sin(x^3) = sum_(n=0)^(oo) frac{(-1)^n x^(6n+3)}{(2n+1)!}#
#xsin(x^3) = sum_(n=0)^(oo) frac{(-1)^n x^(6n+4)}{(2n+1)!}#
Expanded: # = x^4 - frac{x^10}{3!} + (x^16)/(5!) - ... + frac{(-1)^n x^(6n+4)}{(2n+1)!}#
Limit: #lim_(x->0) frac{(frac{x^4}{2} - (x^8)/(4!) + (x^12)/(6!)- ... + frac{(-1)^nx^(4n)}{(2n)!})}{(x^4 - frac{x^10}{3!} + (x^16)/(5!) - ... + frac{(-1)^n x^(6n+4)}{(2n+1)!})}#
By direct substitution, the numerator approaches #1/2# (because #x^4# is the only term that evenly cancels out on the numerator and denominator)

The terms cancel out on the numerator and denominator, so the denominator approaches 0. We don't need to consider the fact that the denominator is zero following direct substitution.

Sign up to view the whole answer

By signing up, you agree to our Terms of Service and Privacy Policy

Sign up with email
Answer 3

To show that (\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{1 - \cos(x^2)}{x \sin(x^3)} = \frac{1}{2}) using the Maclaurin series, we can express (\cos(x)) and (\sin(x)) as their respective Maclaurin series expansions:

[ \cos(x) = 1 - \frac{x^2}{2!} + \frac{x^4}{4!} - \frac{x^6}{6!} + \ldots ] [ \sin(x) = x - \frac{x^3}{3!} + \frac{x^5}{5!} - \frac{x^7}{7!} + \ldots ]

Substitute these series expansions into the given expression and simplify:

[ \frac{1 - \cos(x^2)}{x \sin(x^3)} = \frac{1 - (1 - \frac{x^4}{2!} + \frac{x^8}{4!} - \frac{x^{12}}{6!} + \ldots)}{x \cdot (x^3 - \frac{(x^3)^3}{3!} + \frac{(x^3)^5}{5!} - \frac{(x^3)^7}{7!} + \ldots)} ]

Now, expand the numerator and denominator:

[ \frac{1 - \cos(x^2)}{x \sin(x^3)} = \frac{\frac{x^4}{2!} - \frac{x^8}{4!} + \frac{x^{12}}{6!} - \ldots}{x^4 - \frac{x^{10}}{3!} + \frac{x^{16}}{5!} - \ldots} ]

Cancel out the common factors of (x^4):

[ \frac{1 - \cos(x^2)}{x \sin(x^3)} = \frac{\frac{1}{2!} - \frac{x^4}{4!} + \frac{x^8}{6!} - \ldots}{1 - \frac{x^6}{3!} + \frac{x^{12}}{5!} - \ldots} ]

Now, as (x) approaches 0, terms with higher powers of (x) become negligible, so the expression reduces to:

[ \frac{1}{2} \cdot \frac{1}{1} = \frac{1}{2} ]

Therefore, (\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{1 - \cos(x^2)}{x \sin(x^3)} = \frac{1}{2}).

Sign up to view the whole answer

By signing up, you agree to our Terms of Service and Privacy Policy

Sign up with email
Answer from HIX Tutor

When evaluating a one-sided limit, you need to be careful when a quantity is approaching zero since its sign is different depending on which way it is approaching zero from. Let us look at some examples.

When evaluating a one-sided limit, you need to be careful when a quantity is approaching zero since its sign is different depending on which way it is approaching zero from. Let us look at some examples.

When evaluating a one-sided limit, you need to be careful when a quantity is approaching zero since its sign is different depending on which way it is approaching zero from. Let us look at some examples.

When evaluating a one-sided limit, you need to be careful when a quantity is approaching zero since its sign is different depending on which way it is approaching zero from. Let us look at some examples.

Not the question you need?

Drag image here or click to upload

Or press Ctrl + V to paste
Answer Background
HIX Tutor
Solve ANY homework problem with a smart AI
  • 98% accuracy study help
  • Covers math, physics, chemistry, biology, and more
  • Step-by-step, in-depth guides
  • Readily available 24/7